Monday: Sin and the Law
If Paul is talking about the whole law system at Sinai, what about Romans 7:7, in which he specifically mentions one of the Ten Commandments? Doesn’t that refute the position taken yesterday that Paul was not talking about the abolition of the Ten Commandments?
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The answer is “No.” We must keep in mind, again, that the word law for Paul is the whole system introduced at Sinai, which included the moral law but wasn’t limited to it. Hence, Paul could quote from it, as well as from any other section of the whole Jewish economy, in order to make his points. However, when the system passed away at the death of Christ, that didn’t include the moral law, which had existed even before Sinai and exists after Calvary, as well.
Read Romans 7:8-11. What is Paul saying here about the relationship between the law and sin?
God revealed Himself to the Jews, telling them in detail what was right and wrong in moral, civil, ceremonial, and health matters. He also explained the penalties for violation of the various laws. Violation of the revealed will of God is here defined as sin.
Thus, Paul explains, he would not have known if it was a sin to covet without having been informed of that fact by the “law.” Sin is the violation of the revealed will of God and where the revealed will is unknown, there is no awareness of sin. When that revealed will is made known to a person, he or she comes to recognize that he or she is a sinner and is under condemnation and death. In this sense, the person dies.
In Paul’s line of argument here and throughout this section, he is trying to build a bridge to lead the Jews – who revere the “law” – to see Christ as its fulfillment. He is showing that the law was necessary but that its function was limited. The law was meant to show the need of salvation; it never was meant to be the means of obtaining that salvation.
“The apostle Paul, in relating his experience, presents an important truth concerning the work to be wrought in conversion. He says, ‘I was alive without the law once’ – he felt no condemnation; ‘but when the commandment came,’ when the law of God was urged upon his conscience, ‘sin revived, and I died.’ Then he saw himself a sinner, condemned by the divine law. Mark, it was Paul, and not the law, that died.” – Ellen G. White Comments, The SDA Bible Commentary, vol. 6, p. 1076.
| In what sense have you “died” before the law? How, in that context, can you understand what Jesus has done for you by giving you a new life in Him? |
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Similar to the comment in nov 14th lesson stating that it is pointing not only to the moral law but to the ceremonial law or health laws
I disagree with the statement. I think it is about the commandments and the statements in chapter 7: 7-12 confirms this. The example Paul gave was from the moral law. No where did he give an example of the ceremonial law.
"Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good" Rom 7:12
Why would Paul place a distinction between "law" and "commandment" -- Is he just repeating himself?
I don't think so.
If you've read my previous posts from last week you would see that there is a contrast taking place here between Romans 8:2 (law of sin and death) and Romans 3:27 (law of faith). We have a choice as to which law we will follow. If we follow the "law of faith" then we will automatically be found keeping the commandments because they are so intricately woven into it.
The lesson is explaining to us what the believers in Paul's day would think of when he said, "the law" (without any modifiers). They thought of the whole body of law, which included the Ten Commandments, as well as what we sometimes call the "Mosaic" laws and anything else God had commanded, and Paul wrote with this in mind.
Just because Paul didn't specifically cite any particular commandment doesn't mean it wasn't included.
That said, it is evident that Paul uses "law" in a number of different ways, and when he modifies/describes a "law," we need to pay attention. For instance, when he refers to "another law in my members," he's clearly not referring to God's law, but to something else. The NLT puts it this way, "there is another power within me." (Ro 7:23 NLT)
From above..
"He is showing that the law was necessary but that its function was limited. The law was meant to show the need of salvation; it never was meant to be the means of obtaining that salvation."
This limited function concept of the law is getting increased exposure in the denomination. Sometimes you might read that the only purpose of the law is to point out sin.
Do you think it is a fair/balanced evaluation of the purpose of the law?
"I delight to do thy will, O my God: yea, thy law is within my heart." Ps 40:8
"This is the covenant I will make with them after that time, says the Lord. I will put my laws in their hearts, and I will write them on their minds." Heb 10:16
"If ye love me, keep my commandments." JN 14:15
The purpose of God's law is to reveal the will of God to fallen man. It's when we disobey God's will for our lives that transgression (sin) enters into the picture 1Jn 3:4. It is in this manner that the law points out our sin, but it's chief purpose is to reveal to us God's will for our lives. The law is holy, just, and good. Rm 7:12 What must also be remembered is what the definition of sin is in the book of James. Jm 4:17 Sin is not limited to the 10 commandment moral law, it's the disobedience of any light that God has given to us that results in sin.
It's not just the lesson authors or "the denomination" ... Paul himself makes it very clear that the Law was never intended to be "the means of salvation." See Ro 3:20, 28 and Ro 5:20, Ro 7:7, Ro 8:3, Ro 9:31-32, Gal 2:16, etc.
It is interesting to me that when the Apostle Paul makes any reference to THE LAW he never quotes anything from "The Health, Diet, Ceremonial, or Civil Laws." He just simply always cites something from "The 10 Commandment," list of MORAL CODES.
And, something else that is interesting about how when the Apostle Paul only cites from the 10 Commandment Moral Code when making reference to THE LAW; he, not only, never refers 'Specifically," to the FOURTH COMMANDMENT SABBATH, but he never refers at any one time to ALL 10 of the Moral Code at any one time.
And then finally Jesus Himself never cited the whole list of 10 of the LAW of 10 Commandment Moral Code at any one time but He narrowed them down to TWO COMMANDMENTS of 1. Love to God and 2. Love to man. I guess that both Jesus and Paul figured that GOD had already cited ALL !0 of the 10 Commandments at Mount Sinai, and then the Old Testament cites all 10 of them in two places in Exodus and in Leviticus. And also if THE LAW was to be "written in the heart" of God's People, why keep citing all 10 of them again and again and again, RIGHT?
Actually am,very interested in this lessons so please continue educate as in,this way may our Lord creator be with u
Shouldn't the question be: In what sense have you died after the law? Paul said he was alive before the law (not knowing it and being convicted by the law). But after the law came to his understanding he died! His "old man" died that he could be spiritually made alive in Christ! He once said "I die daily.." So the question should be: In what sense have you died after the law. What say you?